NISM sample questions with answers
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NISM Series I sample questions
1 questionNISM Series I mock tests
Q1.In a Series I question focused on currency-market microstructure, focusing on chapter 7 span, a portfolio contains a long call and a short call at different strikes. How should SPAN assess it? Answer as a currency futures or currency options market participant would.
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Correct answer: A. As a combined option portfolio across scenarios, not as unrelated positions
NISM Series IV sample questions
99 questionsNISM Series IV mock tests
Q2.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 6 market data, why should a trader examine both price change and open-interest change? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: A. The combination helps distinguish fresh positioning from position closure
Q3.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 6 user hierarchy, who is the highest-level user in a trading firm's F&O system hierarchy? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: C. Corporate Manager
Q4.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 6 user hierarchy, which function is specifically available to the Corporate Manager? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: B. Defining exposure limits for branches
Q5.In a short-term rate benchmark and MIBOR futures scenario, focusing on chapter 8 scra, which provision in the SCRA definition allows an equity futures contract to be treated as a security? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: A. Derivatives are expressly included within securities
Q6.In an interest-rate options scenario involving GOI bond price exposure, focusing on chapter 10 kyc, why is periodic KYC updating required? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: B. Client identity, address, ownership, and risk circumstances may change
Q7.During a Series IV mock exam case on exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives, focusing on chapter 10 sales practices, a salesperson recommends naked option writing to a retiree seeking capital preservation. What is the main sales-practice failure? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: A. The recommendation is unsuitable for the client's risk profile and objective
Q8.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 10 sales practices, what should a derivatives salesperson do before recommending a complex strategy? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: D. Assess the client's objectives, financial capacity, knowledge, and risk tolerance
Q9.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 10 kyc, what is the central purpose of Know Your Client procedures? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: C. Establish and verify the client's identity and relevant profile
Q10.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 10 kyc, why is PAN important in the securities-market KYC framework? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: B. It acts as a key unique identifier for securities-market relationships and reporting
Q11.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 9 hedge accounting, which hedge-accounting models are recognized? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: B. Fair value hedge, cash flow hedge, and hedge of a net investment in a foreign operation
Q12.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 9 fair value hedge, what is a fair value hedge? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: A. A hedge of exposure to changes in fair value attributable to a specified risk
Q13.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 9 cash flow hedge, what is a cash flow hedge? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: A. A hedge of exposure to variability in cash flows attributable to a specified risk
Q14.In a short-term rate benchmark and MIBOR futures scenario, focusing on chapter 9 hedge documentation, what is required to apply hedge accounting? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: B. Formal designation, documentation, and effectiveness assessment as applicable
Q15.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 9 oci, where is the effective portion of a qualifying cash flow hedge generally recognized initially? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: C. Other comprehensive income subject to applicable standards
Q16.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 9 ineffectiveness, where is hedge ineffectiveness generally recognized? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: C. Profit or loss as required by the applicable standard
Q17.For a treasury desk hedging duration with bond futures or MIBOR futures, focusing on chapter 9 margin accounting, how is initial margin generally viewed in accounting? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. A deposit or asset according to its nature, not automatically an expense
Q18.During a Series IV mock exam case on exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives, focusing on chapter 9 option accounting, how is option premium paid treated at inception conceptually? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: A. As an amount relating to the derivative asset, subject to subsequent accounting
Q19.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 9 disclosure, what should derivative disclosures describe? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: B. Risk-management policies, exposures, accounting policies, and relevant fair values
Q20.In an interest-rate options scenario involving GOI bond price exposure, focusing on chapter 9 tax classification, how is eligible exchange-traded derivative income commonly classified for tax? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: A. Business income
Q21.How are profits from eligible exchange-traded interest-rate derivative transactions generally classified for an active trader under Indian tax principles? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: A. Non-speculative business income
Q22.In a short-term rate benchmark and MIBOR futures scenario, focusing on chapter 9 tax classification, why is the distinction between speculative and non-speculative business loss important? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. It affects the income against which the loss may be set off and carried forward
Q23.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 9 non speculative, why can eligible exchange-traded derivatives be treated as non-speculative business? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: D. The Income-tax Act provides an exclusion when prescribed recognized-exchange conditions are met
Q24.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 9 loss setoff, against which income can non-speculative business loss generally not be set off in the same year? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. Salary income
Q25.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 9 loss carry forward, for how long may eligible non-speculative business loss generally be carried forward? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: C. Eight assessment years
Q26.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 9 tax filing, what filing condition matters for carrying forward business loss? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: C. The return should be filed within the prescribed due date, subject to law
Q27.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 9 turnover, why does derivative turnover matter? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: A. It can affect books, audit applicability, and tax reporting
Q28.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 9 turnover, for F&O tax reporting, why is turnover not simply the contract notional value? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: C. Tax turnover methods focus on trading differences/premiums under applicable guidance rather than gross underlying notional
Q29.In a short-term rate benchmark and MIBOR futures scenario, focusing on chapter 9 accounting vs tax, should accounting and tax treatment be assumed identical? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: D. No, they arise under different standards and laws
Q30.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 3 bond futures tick, a risk management team holds 2 cash-settled GOI bond futures lots. With tick size INR 0.0025 and 2,000 units per lot, what is the position-value change for one tick? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: C. INR 10
Q31.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 3 bond futures tick, a long-term investor holds 3 cash-settled GOI bond futures lots. With tick size INR 0.0025 and 2,000 units per lot, what is the position-value change for one tick? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: D. INR 15
Q32.For a treasury desk hedging duration with bond futures or MIBOR futures, focusing on chapter 3 tbill contract value, a trader buys 1 lots of 91-day T-bill futures quoted at a discount yield of 4.5%. Using contract value = 2,000 x (100 - 0.25 x yield) x lots, what is the contract value? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: C. INR 1,97,750
Q33.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 3 bond futures tick, what is the tick value of one cash-settled GOI bond futures lot? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: A. INR 5
Q34.During a Series IV mock exam case on exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives, focusing on chapter 3 tbill contract value, a trader buys 2 lots of 91-day T-bill futures quoted at a discount yield of 4.75%. Using contract value = 2,000 x (100 - 0.25 x yield) x lots, what is the contract value? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: C. INR 3,95,250
Q35.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 3 tbill contract value, a trader buys 3 lots of 91-day T-bill futures quoted at a discount yield of 5%. Using contract value = 2,000 x (100 - 0.25 x yield) x lots, what is the contract value? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. INR 5,92,500
Q36.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 9 options accounting, a written option is bought back before expiry. What determines the writer's result? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: B. Premium received initially minus premium paid to close, adjusted for costs
Q37.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 9 exercise accounting, for a cash-settled long call exercised in the money, what accompanies recognition of premium expense? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: A. Recognition of the favorable exercise settlement receipt
Q38.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 9 exercise accounting, for a cash-settled short call assigned in the money, what is recognized besides premium income? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: D. The adverse exercise settlement payment as a loss
Q39.An active trader has a non-speculative derivatives business loss from ETIRD. Against which income head is same-year set-off generally not available? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: B. Salary income
Q40.For a treasury desk hedging duration with bond futures or MIBOR futures, focusing on chapter 9 tax expense, which cost is most plausibly deductible against F&O business income, subject to law and nexus? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: A. Brokerage and exchange transaction charges incurred for the business
Q41.During a Series IV mock exam case on exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives, focusing on chapter 9 accounting controls, why should option premium and margin not be combined into one undifferentiated account? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: C. Premium is consideration for the option, while margin is collateral for performance risk
Q42.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 9 accounting controls, a client receives MTM profit but leaves it with the broker as available balance. What should records show? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: B. The MTM gain and the resulting receivable/deposit balance separately and transparently
Q43.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 9 regulated entity, what should a regulated entity do if its sector regulator prescribes derivative accounting? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. Follow the applicable regulator’s requirements
Q44.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 9 valuation control, why is independent valuation control important? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: D. It supports reliable fair values and prevents unchecked trader marks
Q45.For a treasury desk hedging duration with bond futures or MIBOR futures, focusing on chapter 9 prudence, what is prudence in recognizing derivative losses and gains? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: C. Apply the relevant accounting standard consistently without selectively anticipating gains
Q46.In an interest-rate options scenario involving GOI bond price exposure, focusing on chapter 10 sales practices, why is a statement such as 'high return with no risk' a warning sign? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. Risk and expected return are linked, and derivatives cannot eliminate all investment risk
Q47.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 10 risk disclosure, what is the purpose of the Risk Disclosure Document? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: A. Explain trading risks and broker-client rights and obligations before participation
Q48.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 10 risk disclosure, why is leverage highlighted in derivatives risk disclosure? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: D. A small margin can control a much larger exposure, magnifying gains and losses
Q49.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 10 risk disclosure, what liquidity risk should a derivatives client understand? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: C. A position may not be closable promptly at a reasonable price
Q50.In an interest-rate options scenario involving GOI bond price exposure, focusing on chapter 3 mibor contract value, overnight MIBOR futures are quoted at 4% for 1 lot. Using quoted rate x 100 x INR 411 x lots, what is the contract value? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: C. INR 1,64,400
Q51.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 3 mibor contract value, overnight MIBOR futures are quoted at 4.5% for 3 lots. Using quoted rate x 100 x INR 411 x lots, what is the contract value? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: A. INR 5,54,850
Q52.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 3 mibor contract value, overnight MIBOR futures are quoted at 5% for 5 lots. Using quoted rate x 100 x INR 411 x lots, what is the contract value? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: D. INR 10,27,500
Q53.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 3 mibor tick value, a position contains 2 Overnight MIBOR futures lots. If one tick is 0.25 basis point and worth INR 102.75 per lot, what is the one-tick position change? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: B. INR 205.5
Q54.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 3 mibor tick value, a position contains 4 Overnight MIBOR futures lots. If one tick is 0.25 basis point and worth INR 102.75 per lot, what is the one-tick position change? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: A. INR 411
Q55.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 3 mibor tick value, a position contains 6 Overnight MIBOR futures lots. If one tick is 0.25 basis point and worth INR 102.75 per lot, what is the one-tick position change? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: B. INR 616.5
Q56.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 3 forward rate, the two-year spot rate is 5.5% and the one-year spot rate is 4.8%, with annual compounding. What is the one-year forward rate starting one year from now? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: A. 6.205%
Q57.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 3 forward rate, the two-year spot rate is 5.7% and the one-year spot rate is 4.95%, with annual compounding. What is the one-year forward rate starting one year from now? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: A. 6.455%
Q58.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 3 forward rate, the two-year spot rate is 5.9% and the one-year spot rate is 5.1%, with annual compounding. What is the one-year forward rate starting one year from now? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: B. 6.706%
Q59.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 3 bond price rate, how does a long GOI bond futures position react to falling yields? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: C. It generally gains because bond prices rise
Q60.In an interest-rate options scenario involving GOI bond price exposure, focusing on chapter 3 bond price rate, how does a short GOI bond futures position react to rising yields? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: C. It generally gains because bond prices fall
Q61.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 3 mibor direction, how is a long Overnight MIBOR futures position different from a long bond future? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: D. It gains from a rise in the quoted MIBOR rate, whereas a long bond future generally gains when yields fall
Q62.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 3 bond futures lot, what is the lot size for cash-settled single GOI bond futures in the workbook? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: B. 2,000 units, corresponding to face value INR 2 lakh
Q63.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 3 tbill quotation, how are 91-day T-bill futures quoted? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: D. 100 minus the futures discount yield
Q64.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 3 tbill tick, what is the tick value of one 91-day T-bill futures lot? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: C. INR 1.25
Q65.In a short-term rate benchmark and MIBOR futures scenario, focusing on chapter 3 mibor notional, what notional principal underlies one Overnight MIBOR futures contract? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: A. INR 5 crore for one month on a 30/365 basis
Q66.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 3 mibor settlement, what is the final settlement rate for Overnight MIBOR futures? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: B. The simple average of applicable daily FBIL Overnight MIBOR for the contract month
Q67.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 3 basis, what is basis in the workbook’s convention? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: C. Spot price minus futures price
Q68.For a treasury desk hedging duration with bond futures or MIBOR futures, focusing on chapter 3 basis convergence, why does futures basis converge toward zero at expiry? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: D. Futures and spot refer to the same underlying value at the same time
Q69.During a Series IV mock exam case on exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives, focusing on chapter 3 bond futures pricing, what is the fair-price relation for a bond future? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: D. Cash price plus financing cost minus income on the cash position
Q70.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 3 carry income, why may bond futures often trade below spot clean price? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: A. Income earned on the bond can exceed financing cost
Q71.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 3 fra position, what is a forward rate agreement from the borrower’s rate perspective? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: D. The borrower is long the reference interest rate
Q72.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 3 current settlement, what is the current settlement mode of exchange-traded GOI bond futures described in the March 2026 workbook? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: B. Cash settlement
Q73.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 3 current settlement, what is the current settlement mode of 91-day T-bill futures? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: D. Cash settlement
Q74.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 3 current settlement, what is the current settlement mode of Overnight MIBOR futures? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: A. Cash settlement
Q75.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 3 trading hours, what is the regular trading time for listed IRF products stated in the workbook? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: C. Monday to Friday, 9:00 a.m. to 5:00 p.m.
Q76.In a short-term rate benchmark and MIBOR futures scenario, focusing on chapter 3 price band, what is the price band for cash-settled GOI bond futures? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: D. Plus or minus 3% of base price, subject to prescribed relaxation
Q77.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 3 price band, what operating range applies to 91-day T-bill futures? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: D. Plus or minus 1% of base price
Q78.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 3 price band, what operating range applies to Overnight MIBOR futures? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: B. Plus or minus 5% of base rate
Q79.For a treasury desk hedging duration with bond futures or MIBOR futures, focusing on chapter 3 daily settlement, what is daily settlement price normally based on for a liquid IRF contract? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: B. The prescribed volume-weighted average of recent trades
Q80.During a Series IV mock exam case on exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives, focusing on chapter 3 theoretical price, what is used when the required closing-trade data are unavailable? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: B. A published theoretical-price methodology
Q81.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 3 open interest, what is open interest? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: B. Outstanding contracts not yet closed or finally settled
Q82.In an interest-rate options scenario involving GOI bond price exposure, focusing on chapter 3 open interest, what does a new buyer and new seller generally do to open interest? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: B. Increase it by one contract
Q83.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 3 irf vs fra, what is the main advantage of IRF over an FRA? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: D. Exchange transparency and central clearing reduce bilateral counterparty exposure
Q84.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 3 hedge limitations, what is a limitation of standardized IRF for hedging? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: D. Lot size and expiry may not exactly match the exposure
Q85.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 3 expectancy model, what is expectancy-model pricing? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: B. The futures price reflects the market’s expected future spot value
Q86.In a Series IV question focused on fixed-income market mechanics, focusing on chapter 3 short selling, why is short selling relevant to cash-and-carry pricing? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: C. Reverse arbitrage may require borrowing and selling the underlying
Q87.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 3 calendar spread, what does a calendar spread in IRF combine? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: D. Opposite positions in different expiries on the same underlying
Q88.In a short-term rate benchmark and MIBOR futures scenario, focusing on chapter 3 price discovery, what is price discovery in IRF? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: B. Competitive trading reveals market expectations about rates and bond values
Q89.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 3 futures margin, why are both sides of futures margined? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. Either long or short can incur losses as price or rate moves
Q90.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 3 mtm, what does mark-to-market accomplish? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: D. It settles daily gains and losses against the latest settlement value
Q91.For a treasury desk hedging duration with bond futures or MIBOR futures, focusing on chapter 3 closing position, what happens to an IRF position closed by an exact opposite trade? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: B. The net open position is reduced or eliminated
Q92.During a Series IV mock exam case on exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives, focusing on chapter 4 call put, what does a call option give its buyer? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: C. The right to buy the underlying at the strike price
Q93.For a fixed-income dealer reviewing yield, basis, and margin risk, focusing on chapter 4 call put, what does a put option give its buyer? Apply the Series IV fixed-income convention while selecting the correct response.
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Correct answer: C. The right to sell the underlying at the strike price
Q94.In an interest-rate options scenario involving GOI bond price exposure, focusing on chapter 4 terminology, which party receives the option premium when an option is created? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: C. The option writer
Q95.For a bank treasury comparing cash bonds, futures, and swaps, focusing on chapter 4 terminology, in option-market terminology, who is the holder? Use the Indian exchange-traded interest-rate derivatives framework.
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Correct answer: D. The option buyer
Q96.For a risk manager using listed interest-rate derivatives for rate exposure, focusing on chapter 4 terminology, what is the strike price of an option? Answer as a GOI bond, T-bill, or MIBOR derivatives participant would.
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Correct answer: D. The predetermined price at which the underlying may be bought or sold on exercise
Q97.In an Indian ETIRD compliance and settlement case, focusing on chapter 4 rights obligations, which statement correctly distinguishes an option buyer from an option writer? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: A. The buyer has a right; the writer has a contingent obligation
Q98.For a clearing and settlement case in interest-rate derivatives focusing on chapter 4 rights obligations, an option holder chooses not to exercise an unfavourable option. Which contractual feature permits this? Select the most accurate fixed-income derivatives interpretation.
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Correct answer: B. The holder has a right without an obligation
Q99.In a Series IV interest-rate derivatives case for a GOI securities portfolio, focusing on chapter 4 rights obligations, when a call holder exercises, what obligation does the call writer face? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: A. To sell or otherwise settle the underlying exposure at the strike terms
Q100.For a debt portfolio manager concerned about rate movements, focusing on chapter 4 exercise style, a European-style option may be exercised when? Choose the answer that best fits the interest-rate-derivatives exam context.
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Correct answer: D. Only on its expiry date
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